How I Predicted UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2022 Paper

How I Predicted UPSC CSE PRELIMS 2022 Paper

UPSC CSE 2022 PRELIMS PAPER

Q1.

Answer: B

Comment: very easy directly from optima cards and DPN

Our Sources:

https://optimizeias.com/imf-support-system/

PPP: Indirect Question, February 2022

Q2.

Answer: C

Comment: very easy directly from TEST and DPN

Our Sources:  1027 Economy Advance Part II

Test 1037 Economic Survey and Budget

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • The rupee depreciated by 1.6 per cent in terms of 40-currency NEER (trade-weighted) in December 2021 over March 2021, while it appreciated by 0.4 per cent in terms of 40-currency REER, reflecting widening inflation differential with trading partners. Hence, option A is correct.
  • Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER): The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) is an unadjusted weighted average rate at which one country’s currency exchanges for a basket of multiple foreign currencies. The nominal exchange rate is the amount of domestic currency needed to purchase foreign currency. In economics, the NEER is an indicator of a country’s international competitiveness in terms of the foreign exchange (forex) market. Forex traders sometimes refer to the NEER as the trade-weighted currency index.
  • Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER): The NEER may be adjusted to compensate for the inflation rate of the home country relative to the inflation rate of its trading partners. The resulting figure is the real effective exchange rate (REER).

DPN: https://optimizeias.com/real-exchange-rate/

 

Q3.

 

Answer: B

Comment: Conceptual and easy . Directly from DPN and Tests

Our Sources: Test 1010 NCERT ECONOMY

Test no 1041 Economy Optima

Answer: C

Explanation:

Depreciation of rupee caused due to relative larger supply of money to the foreign currency, which can be prevented by:

  • RBI can sell forex to rupee 
  • Increase repo rate –leads capital inflows
  • Currency swap agreements

Sterilisation in the context of monetary policy refers to the activity of the RBI of taking away the excess money supply created due to its foreign exchange market intervention. Here, excess money supply has been occurred when the RBI bought dollars (foreign exchange/currency) from the foreign exchange market while giving rupee. Hence, it is measure to curtail inflation caused due to buying of forex in return of Indian rupee.

https://optimizeias.com/the-forex-reserves/

https://optimizeias.com/rupee-depreciation-3/

 

Q 4.

Answer: C

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: Factual directly from DPN.

Q 5.

Answer: A

Comment: Medium

Q 6:

Answer: B

Comment: Tough if you have not read.

Our Sources: Indirect

Q 7.

 

Answer: A

Comment: Medium if you have not read.

Q 8.

Answer: D

Comment: easy directly from the DPN.

Our Sources:

https://optimizeias.com/new-rules-to-clear-retro-tax-mess/

Q9.

 

Answer: A

Comment: Easy

Our Sources:

https://optimizeias.com/daily-prelims-notes-4-october-2021/

Also asked in Question many times.

FLT 1047

 

Q 10.

Answer: C

Comment: Medium

Our Sources:

https://optimizeias.com/public-borrowing/

https://optimizeias.com/public-debt/

Q.11

Answer: B

Comment: Easy

Our Sources: FULL LENGTH TEST 6 1047

Answer: C

Explanation:

  • Contempt of court, as a concept, seeks to protect judicial institutions from motivated attacks and unwarranted criticism, and as a legal mechanism to punish those who lower its authority.
  • Statement 1 is correct: Both the High Court and the Supreme Court of India are bestowed with the power to punish for the contempt of the court.
  • Article 129: Grants the Supreme Court the power to punish for contempt of itself.
  • Article 142(2): Enables the Supreme Court to investigate and punish any person for its contempt.
  • Article 215: Grants every High Court the power to punish for contempt of itself.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, lays down the law on contempt of court. The AG’s consent is mandatory when a private citizen wants to initiate a case of contempt of court against a person. Before such a plea can be filed, the Attorney General must sign off on the complaint, determining if it requires the attention of the court at all.

However, when the court itself initiates a contempt of court case, the AG’s consent is not required. This is because the court is exercising its inherent powers under the Constitution to punish for contempt.

Q.12

Answer: B

Comment: Tough

Our Sources: March Current Affairs Test 1042

 

Q 13.

Answer: B

Comment: Easy

Our Sources: Test 1002: Polity NCERT TEST

  1. 1 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Statement 1: An amendment of the constitution can be initiated only by either House of the Parliament and not the state legislature.

Statement 2:  After passage of the amendment bill in the Parliament, the bill is sent to the President of India for his assent. Only those amending federal provision need half number of states ratifying it.

Statement 3: The President cannot send the Constitution amendment bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.

Statement 4: There are three ways in which the Constitution can be amended:

  1. Amendment by simple majority of the Parliament
  2. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament
  3. Amendment by special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of at least half of the state legislatures.

The first two provisions does not require consent from state legislatures.

https://optimizeias.com/amending-procedure-of-constitution/

Q14.

Answer: B

Comment: Very easy

Our Sources: PPP: Direct Question, April 2022

Test 1014 Polity Advanced I

Q15.

Answer: B

Comment: Very easy

Our Sources: Direct from LAQSHYA NCERT POLITY TEST

 

Q 16.

 

Answer: B

Comment: Very Easy

Our Sources:

DPN: https://optimizeias.com/the-anti-defection-law/

PPP: Indirect Question, November 2021

Test 1039 Full Length Test

Answer: D

Explanation:

  • The presiding officer of the house is not bound by anti-defection. He can vote in case of a tie. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
  • With rising public opinion for an anti-defection law, immediately after securing a clear majority in 1984, Rajiv Gandhi proposed the new anti-defection bill in the Parliament. After marathon debates, both the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha unanimously approved the bill on 30 and 31 January 1985, respectively. The bill received the President’s approval on 15 February 1985 and the act came into effect on 18 March 1985.  Hence Statement 3 is correct.
  • Accordingly, in the EC’s opinion, “the voting or not voting as per his/her own free will at the presidential election will not come within the ambit of disqualification under the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution of India and the electors are at liberty to vote or not to vote at the Presidential election as per their own free will and choice.” Hence Statement 2 is wrong.
  • Option Elimination Technique: The word ‘all’ in statement 1 seems to be an extreme word and is therefore incorrect. Moreover, statement 2 can be eliminated via our logical thinking.

Test 1015_POLITY ADVANCE PART 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

The Tenth Schedule contains the following provisions with respect to the disqualification of members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection:

  • Members of Political Parties: A member of a House belonging to any political party becomes disqualified for being a member of the House,
    • if he voluntarily gives up his membership of such political party; or Hence, statement 1 is correct.
    • If he votes or abstains from voting in such House contrary to any direction issued by his political party without obtaining prior permission of such party and such act has not been condoned by the party within 15 days.
  • Independent Members: An independent member of a House (elected without being set up as a candidate by any political party) becomes disqualified to remain a member of the House if he joins any political party after such election. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  • Nominated Members: A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  • This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this disqualification.
  • The Supreme Court in the KihotoHollohan versus Zachillu and Others, 1992 has said that Anti defection law is under judicial review. But it cannot be available at a stage prior to the making of a decision by the Speaker / Chairman. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Test 1031 Polity OPTIMA

12. Consider the following statements regarding Anti defection Law

Q.17

Answer: D

Comment: Easy

Our Sources: TEST 1014 POLITY ADVANCE –PART 1

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer from the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above.

Solution: A

Explanation:

Only Statement 1 and 2 are correct:

  • Article 76 in the Constitution has provided for the office of the Attorney General for India. He is the highest law officer in the country.
  • The attorney general is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the supreme court.
  • He holds office during the pleasure of the president.
  • He is not a full-time counsel for the government.
  • He does not fall in the category of government servants.
  • Further, he is not debarred from private legal practice.
  • He should not defend accused persons in criminal prosecution without the permission of the Government of India.

Test 1015_POLITY ADVANCE PART 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

  • Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-president, the PM and the Council of Ministers and the Attorney General of India. Article 76 in part 5 provides for the AGI, hence, it is a constitutional office.
  • In the performance of his duties the AGI has the right to speak and take part in the proceedings of the houses of the Parliament or joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be a member without voting rights.
  • The Solicitor general of India and the additional solicitor general of India assists the AGI in his official duties, but is never mentioned in the Constitution.
  • AGI is not barred from the private legal practices. He is also allowed to defend an accused person in a criminal case with the permission of the government.

May month current affairs (Test 1004)

1) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Attorney general of India’

  1. Article 76 of the Constitution of India provides for the office of the Attorney General for India.
  2. He is the highest law officer in the country.
  3. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the High Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. All of the above

Solution: A

Explanation:

  • Article 76 of the Constitution of India provides for the office of the Attorney General for India.
  • He is the highest law officer in the country.
  • He is appointed by the president.
  • He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court.
  • It implies that he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist.
  • The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution.
  • The Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal.
  • He holds office during the pleasure of the president which means that he may be removed by the president at any time.
  • He resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

FULL LENGTH TEST 6

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Statement 1 is correct: Article 76 of the constitution of India mentions that Attorney General is the highest law officer in India. As a chief legal advisor to the government of India, he advises the union government on all legal matters.
  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Attorney General is appointed by the President on the advice of the government. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court of India, i.e., s/he must be a citizen of India and must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the President.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: Attorney General has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which s/he may be named a member but without a right to vote.

Q18.

Answer: C

Comment: Medium and conceptual

Our Sources: Test 1002: Polity NCERT TEST

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Right to vote and right to property are constitutional rights under Article 326 and Article 300a. Right to property from Fundamental rights was removed by 44th Constitutional amendment act (article 31).

Right to Work is legal right under National Rural Employment Guarantee Act NREGA.

Right to constitutional remedy is provided under art 32 of the Constitution. Under it the citizens can directly go to the Supreme Court for violations of the fundamental right. The article gives the Supreme Court power to issue following writs:

  1. Habeas corpus: A writ of habeas corpus means that the court orders that the arrested person should be presented before it. It can also order to set free an arrested person if the manner or grounds of arrest are not lawful or satisfactory.
  2. Mandamus: This writ is issued when the court finds that a particular office holder is not doing legal duty and thereby is infringing on the right of an individual.
  3. Prohibition: This writ is issued by a higher court (High Court or Supreme Court) when a lower court has considered a case going beyond its jurisdiction.
  4. Quo Warranto: If the court finds that a person is holding office but is not entitled to hold that office, it issues the writ of quo warranto and restricts that person from acting as an office holder.
  5. Certiorari: Under this writ, the court orders a lower court or another authority to transfer a matter pending before it to the higher authority or court.

Hence option a is the correct answer.

Q19.

Answer: D

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: Cards and DPN

https://optimizeias.com/ayushman-bharat-health-infrastructure-mission/

Q20.

Answer: A

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: PPP: Direct Question, September 2021

Test 1008 JUNE MONTH CURRENT AFFAIRS

Solution: A

Explanation:

  • The institutions of Speaker and Deputy Speaker originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague-Chelmsford Reforms).
  • Article 93 of the Constitution provides for the election of both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker.
  • The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from amongst its member’s right after the election of the Speaker has taken place.

The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker

Test 1021: SEPTEMBER CURRENT AFFAIRS – 2021

Solution: B

Explanation:

  • Like the Speaker, the Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members.
  • He is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker.
  • The Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible to the House.
  • The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker, while assuming their offices, do not make and subscribe any separate oath or affirmation.

Test 1039 FLT test 1

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • The post of Deputy Speaker, as per well-established parliamentary convention, goes to the opposition. Hence statement 1 is wrong.
  • The foundation of this convention was laid way back in 1956 when Sardar Hukum Singh of the Akali Dal was elected unopposed as Deputy Speaker. The Deputy Speakers like G.G. Swell, Shivraj Patil, Mallikarjunaiah, SurajBhan, P.M. Syed, Charanjit Singh Atwal, Karia Munda and Thambidurai too, did not belong to the ruling party.
  • Under Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, “the election of the Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.” Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
  • When the speaker is presiding over the house, the deputy speaker becomes a normal member and can vote in the first instance itself unlike the speaker who can vote only in case of a tie. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Test 1043 FLT test 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

  • The institutions of Speaker and Deputy speaker originated in India in 1921 under the provisions of the Government of India Act of 1919 (Montague-Chelmsford Reforms). At the time, the speaker and the deputy speaker were called the president and deputy president respectively and the same nomenclature continued till 1947. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  • Like the Speaker, the Deputy speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from among its members. He is elected after the election of the speaker has taken place. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The date of the election of the Deputy speaker is fixed by the Speaker whereas the date of the election of Speaker is fixed by the President. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • The Speaker along with the Deputy Speaker is elected from among the Lok Sabha members by a simple majority of members present and voting in the House. Once a decision on the candidate is taken, his/her name is normally proposed by the Prime Minister or the Minister of Parliamentary Affairs. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
  • Like the Speaker, Deputy Speaker is also elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members he is elected after the election of the speaker has taken place.
  • Role of Speaker and Deputy Speaker:
  • Interpretation: Speaker (in his absence, Deputy Speaker) is the final interpreter of the provisions of the Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha and the parliamentary precedents, within the House.
  • Joint Sitting of Both Houses: Speaker/ Deputy Speaker presides over a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament.
  • Casting Vote: The speaker/Deputy Speaker does not vote in the first instance but in the case of a tie; when the House is divided equally on any question, the Speaker is entitled to vote.
  • Disqualifying Members: Speaker/ Deputy Speaker decides the questions of disqualification of a member of the Lok Sabha, arising on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule. Hence Statement 2 is incorrect.
  • The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker (date of election of the Speaker is fixed by the President). This is to be noted that when the Speaker presides over the house the Deputy Speaker is like any other ordinary member of the house he can speak in the house, participate in its proceedings and vote on any question before the house. The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office only when it is vacant/ later is absent from sitting in the house. Hence Statement 3 is also incorrect.

https://optimizeias.com/deputy-speaker-of-lok-sabha/

Q 21.

Answer: B

Comment: Easy

Our Sources: Direct Question – DPN

https://optimizeias.com/emissions-from-paddy-cultivation/

February2022 PPP

https://optimizeias.com/prelims-power-play-14-february-2022/

 

Q22.

Answer: D

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: DPN

https://optimizeias.com/system-of-rice-intensification-an-water-efficient-production-process/

Q23.

Answer: B

Comment: Tough

Q24.

Answer: C

Comment: Tough

Q25.

Answer:  B

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: Test 1007: NCERT INDIAN GEOGRAPHY

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  • Nanda Devi is the second highest mountain in India after Kangchenjunga and the highest located entirely within the country. (Kangchenjunga, which is higher, is on the border of India and Nepal.) It is part of the Kumaon Himalayas, and is located in Garhwal region in Chamoli district of
  • Nepal Himalayas from west to east: Dhaulagiri- Annapurna- Manaslu- Gauri Shankar- Everest -Makalu.
  • Namcha Barwa or Namchabarwa is a mountain peak in the Assam Himalaya that lies in Tibet in the historical region of Pemako. it is the highest peak of its own section as well as Earth’s easternmost peak over 7,600 metres.It stands inside the Great Bend of the YarlungTsangpo River as the river enters its notable gorge across the Himalaya, emerging as the Siang and becoming the Brahmaputra.

Q26.

Answer: A

Comment: Easy

Our Sources: DPN

https://optimizeias.com/daily-prelims-notes-15-march-2022/

Q27.

Answer: C

Comment: Easy

Our Sources:

https://optimizeias.com/durand-line/

Q28.

Answer: B

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: Indirect Question, June 2021

Test 1043 FLT test 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

Monazite is a heavy mineral found mostly on beaches of Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. It contains 7-13 percent Thorium but lack of Advanced Nuclear Third Phase Nuclear Technology prevents us from fully harnessing it. India has highest 25 % of world Thorium reserves, but recent discoveries in Australia is making it at par with India in Thorium reserves.

Test 1007 NCERT INDIAN GEOGRAPHY

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

All the statements are correct:

  • Uranium is a heavy metal which has been used as an abundant source of concentrated energy for over 60 years.
  • Uranium occurs in most rocks in concentrations of 2 to 4 parts per million and is as common in the Earth’s crust as tin, tungsten and molybdenum. Uranium occurs in seawater, and can be recovered from the oceans
  • Uranium deposits occur in Singhbhum and Hazaribagh districts of Jharkhand, Gaya district of Bihar, and in the sedimentary rocks in Saharanpur district of Uttar Pradesh.
  • But the largest source of uranium comprises the monazite sands.
  • India, Madagascar, and South Africa have large deposits of monazite sands.
  • Monazite sands occur on east and west coasts and in some places in Bihar. But the largest concentration of monazite sand is on the Kerala coast.
  • Because of their high density, monazite minerals concentrate in alluvial sands when released by the weathering of pegmatites. These so-called placer deposits are often beach or fossil beach sands and contain other heavy minerals of commercial interest such as zircon and ilmenite.

GEOGRAPHY- NCERT TEST (Human Geography) Test – 1009

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • Thorium is mainly obtained from monazite and ilmenite in the beach sands along the coast of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. World’s richest monazite deposits occur in Palakkad and Kollam districts of Kerala, near Visakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh and Mahanadi river delta in Odisha.

1034 GEOGRAPHY TEST

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

Only statements 1 and 2 are correct: 

  • Monazite is one of the beach sand minerals that contains rare earths like, lanthanum, cerium, praseodymium, neodymium etc.
  • It is translucent and one of the most resistant minerals to weathering.
  • It is a rare phosphate mineral usually occurs in small isolated grains in Igneous and Metamorphic rocks such as granite, pegmatite, schist, and gneiss.
  • But all monazite mining is focused on placer deposits because they are easier to mine, and the monazite is often present in higher concentrations than in hard rock deposits.
  • Other heavy minerals that accumulate with monazite include Gold, Platinum, Magnetite, Ilmenite, Rutile, Zircon and a variety of gemstones.
  • Today, most of the world’s monazite is produced in the offshore waters of India, Malaysia, Vietnam, and Brazil.
  • Southern India and Sri Lanka have the most extensive offshore monazite resources known.
  • It is a radioactive atomic mineral used for production of Thorium (as high as 500 ppm) and potential to be used as fuel in the nuclear power system. 

Q29.

Answer: B

Comment: Easy

Our Sources: Direct Question, June 2021

Q30.

Answer: B

Comment: Tough

Q31.

Answer: D

Comment: Medium

Q32.

Answer: D

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: FULL LENGTH TEST 6

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Both the statements are correct.

About World Wide Web:

  • World Wide Web, which is also known as a Web, is a collection of websites or web pages stored in web servers and connected to local computers through the internet.
  • These websites contain text pages, digital images, audios, videos, etc. Users can access the content of these sites from any part of the world over the internet using their devices such as computers, laptops, cell phones, etc.

Previous Versions:

  • Web 1.0:
    • Web 1.0 is the world wide web or the internet that was invented in 1989. It became popular from 1993. It lasted until 1999.
    • The internet in the Web 1.0 days was mostly static web pages where users would go to a website and then read and interact with the static information.
    • Even though there were e-commerce websites in the initial days it was still a closed environment and the users themselves could not create any content or post reviews on the internet.
  • Web 2.0:
    • Web 2.0 started in some form in the late 1990s itself though 2004 was when most of its features were fully available. It is still the age of Web 2.0 now.
    • The differentiating characteristic of Web 2.0 compared to Web 1.0 is that users can create content.
    • They can interact and contribute in the form of comments, registering likes, sharing and uploading their photos or videos and perform other such activities.
    • Primarily, a social media kind of interaction is the differentiating trait of Web 2.0.
  • Web 3.0
    • Web 3.0 is a decentralised internet to be run on blockchain technology, which would be different from the versions in use, Web 1.0 and Web 2.0.
    • In Web3, users will have ownership stakes in platforms and applications unlike now where tech giants control the platforms.
    • Gavin Wood, founder of Ethereum, a block chain technology company, used the term Web3 first in 2014 and in the past few years many others have added to the idea of Web3.
  • Need of Web 3.0:
    • In Web 2.0, most of the data in the internet and the internet traffic are owned or handled by very few companies. E.g.,Google.
    • This has created issues related to data privacy, data security and abuse of such data.
    • There is a sense of disappointment that the original purpose of the internet has been distorted.
  • Significance of Web 3.0:
    • Decentralised and Fair Internet: Web3 will deliver a decentralised and fair internet where users control their own data.
    • Eliminates Intermediaries: With block chain, the time and place of the transaction are recorded permanently.
      • Thus, Web3 enables peer to peer (seller to buyer) transactions by eliminating the role of the intermediary.
      • Decentralisation and Transparency: The spirit of Web3 is Decentralised Autonomous Organisation (DAO).
      • DAO is all about the business rules and governing rules in any transaction are transparently available for anyone to see and software will be written conforming to these rules.
      • With DAO, there is no need for a central authority to authenticate or validate.
Web 2.0Web 3.0
Centralized. Application delivery, cloud services and platform are governed and operated by centralized authorities.Decentralized. Edge computing, peer-to-peer and distributed consensus increasingly become the norm in Web 3.0.
Flat Currency. Payments and transactions occur with government-issued currency, such as $USD.Cryptocurrency. Transactions can be funded with encrypted digital currencies, such as Bitcoin and Ethereum
Cookies. The use of cookies helps to track users and provide personalizationNFTs. Users can get unique tokens that are assigned value or provide some form of perk
CSS and Ajax. Web 2.0 is defined by layout technologies that provide more dynamic control than Web 1.0.A.I. Smarter, autonomous, technology, including machine learning and AI, will define Web 3.0
Relational databases. Databases underpin the content and applications of Web 2.0.Blockchain. Web 3.0 makes use of blockchain immutable ledger technology.
Social networks. Web 2. ushered in the era of social networking. Including Facebook.Metaverse worlds. With Web 3.0, metaverse worlds will emerge to meld physical, virtual and augmented reality

 

 Q33.

Answer: D

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: DPN

https://optimizeias.com/daily-prelims-notes-2-june-2022/

Q34.

Answer: C

Comment: Medium

Q35.

Answer: B

Comment: Very Easy

Our Sources:

Q36.

Answer: D

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: Indirect question
https://optimizeias.com/contactless-payment/

https://optimizeias.com/kavach/

Q37.

Answer: D

Comment: Medium

Q38.

Answer: C

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: Direct from DPN

https://optimizeias.com/probiotics-yoghurt-for-a-long-healthy-life/

 

Q39.

Answer: B

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: Direct Question, February 2022

Q40.

 

Answer: C

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: Test 1021 SEPTEMBER CURRENT AFFAIRS – 2021

47) Consider the following 

Solution: C

Explanation:

  • A solar storm or a Coronal Mass Ejection is an ejection of highly magnetized particles from the sun.
  • These particles can travel several million km per hour and can take about 13 hours to five days to reach Earth.
  • Earth’s atmosphere protects us from these particles. But the particles can interact with our Earth’s magnetic field, and induce strong electric currents on the surface and affect man-made structures.
  • The Sun goes through an 11-year cycle – cycles of high and low activity. It also has a longer 100-year cycle.

Q41.

Answer: A

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: DPN

Q42.

Answer: B

Comment: Tough

Q43.

Answer: D

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: DPN

https://optimizeias.com/wetlands/

Q 44.

Answer: B

Comment: Tough

Our Sources: Direct Question, September 2021

https://optimizeias.com/quiz-2021-prelims-power-play-23-september-2021/

TEST 1029 NOVEMBER CURRENT AFFAIRS – 2021

Answer: A

Explanation:

  • The World Health Organisation (WHO) has released new Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs). Under these guidelines, WHO has further lowered the recommended levels of pollutants that can be considered safe for human health.
  • This is the first-ever update of WHO since 2005. The goal of the guideline is for all countries to achieve recommended air quality levels.

Key Points

New Guidelines:

  • The guidelines recommend new air quality levels to protect the health of populations, by reducing levels of key air pollutants, some of which also contribute to climate change.
  • By striving to achieve these guideline levels, countries will be both protecting health as well as mitigating global climate change.
  • WHO’s move sets the stage for eventual shifts in policy in the government towards evolving newer stricter standards.
  • WHO’s new guidelines recommend air quality levels for 6 pollutants, where evidence has advanced the most on health effects from exposure.
  • 6 classical pollutants include particulate matter (PM 2.5 and 10), ozone (O3), nitrogen dioxide (NO2) sulphur dioxide (SO2) and carbon monoxide (CO). Hence statement 1 is correct.
  • New WHO Global AQGs vs India’s NAAQS:

Impact of New Guidelines on India: 

  • The new air quality guidelines mean that nearly the entire India would be considered a polluted zone for most of the year. Hence statement 2 is correct.
  • However, by WHO’s own admission, more than 90% of the world’s population lived in areas which did not meet its 2005 pollution standards.
  • The new WHO norms should push India to work harder to make its air cleaner and safer.
  • Further, the feasibility of implementing the new guidelines is questionable, especially in challenging geo-climatic zones like south Asia, including India.
  • Experts point out that this region has challenging meteorological and climatic conditions, with the added challenge of haze columns, heat island effects and very high base pollution.
  • However, as the WHO’s guidelines are not binding, the move doesn’t immediately impact India as the National Ambient Air Quality Standards (NAAQS) don’t meet the WHO’s existing standards. Hence statement 3 is not correct.

The government has a dedicated National Clean Air Programme that aims for a 20% to 30% reduction in particulate matter concentrations by 2024 in 122 cities, keeping 2017 as the base year for the comparison of concentration.

Q45.

Answer: C

Comment: Easy

Our Sources: PPP January 2021

https://optimizeias.com/gucchi-mushroom/

https://optimizeias.com/gucchi-mushroom/

https://optimizeias.com/mushroom-farming/

Q46.

Answer: A

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: DPN

 

https://optimizeias.com/plastic-waste/

Q47.

Answer: A

Q48.

Answer: A

Comment: Tough

Q49.

Answer: A

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: DPN

Q50.

Answer: C

Comment: Very Easy

Our Sources: TEST 1035 ENVIRONMENT OPTIMA

Answer: D

Explanation:

All the statements are correct.

  • Invented by and named after Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki, the ‘Miyawaki Method’ is a unique technique to grow forests.
  • Under the approach, dozens of native species are planted in the same area, close to each other, which ensures that the plants receive sunlight only from the top, and grow upwards than sideways.
  • It requires very little space (a minimum of 20 square feet). Plants grow ten times faster, and the forest becomes maintenance-free in three years.
  • This forest absorbs up to 30 times or more Carbon-dioxide absorption as compared to conventional forest.

Q51.

Answer: C

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: Indirect DPN

Why this question?

This year 30 years of Panchayati raj

https://optimizeias.com/daily-prelims-notes-30-may-2022/

Q 52.

Answer: B

Comment: Tough 

Q53.

Answer: D

Comment: Tough 

Our Sources: Indirect Question, June 2021

Test 1005: Modern India

Test 1043 FLT 3

 

Q54.

 

Answer: B

Comment: Medium difficulty

Our Sources: Test 1032 _History Optima

Directly PPP:

https://optimizeias.com/quiz-2021-prelims-power-play-15-august-2021/

Q55.

Answer: B

Comment: Tough

OUR SOURCES: FLT 7

Q56.

Answer: C

Comment: Tough

Q57.

Answer: B

Comment: Tough

Q58.

 

Answer: D

Comment: Tough

Q59.

Answer: B

Comment: Tough

Q60.

Answer: A

Comment: Tough

Q61.

Answer: A

Comment: Very easy

Our Sources: Directly from the DPN

https://optimizeias.com/us-fed-tapering-its-impact-on-rupee/

1027 Economy Advance Part II

Answer: c

Q62.

Answer: A

Comment: Easy

Our Sources: Direct Question, August 2021

https://optimizeias.com/quiz-2021-prelims-power-play-10-august-2021/

https://optimizeias.com/indias-darjeeling-tea/

Q63.

Answer: B

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: https://optimizeias.com/credit-rating-in-india

Q64.

Answer: B

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: DPN

https://optimizeias.com/banks-board-bureau-bbb/

Q65.

Answer: C

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: TEST 1045 FULL LENGTH TEST 5

Q66.

Answer: D

Comment: Easy

Our Sources: Direct Question, August 2021

https://optimizeias.com/prelims-power-play-14-march-2022/

https://optimizeias.com/shanghai-cooperation-organisation-sco/

Q67.

Answer: C

Comment: Medium

Q68.

Answer:  D

Comment: Very easy

Our Sources:

https://optimizeias.com/inflation-targeting-2/

Our Sources: Indirect Question, July 2021

Test 1044 – Full Length Test #4

Q69.

Answer: A

Comment: Very Easy

Our Sources: FULL LENGTH TEST 6

https://optimizeias.com/non-fungible-tokens-nfts/

FULL LENGTH TEST 7

Q70.

Answer: C

Comment: Tough

Our Sources: Indirect Question, February 2022

Q71.

Answer: C

Comment: Very easy

Our Sources: DPN

https://optimizeias.com/labour-bureau/

Q72.

Answer: A

Comment: Tough

Q73.

Answer: A

Comment: Very easy

Our Sources: TEST 1040 FLT 2

Test 1015_POLITY ADVANCE PART 2

Answer: D

Q74.

Answer: B

Comment: Easy if you have read DPN and apply option elimination.

Our Sources: DPN

https://optimizeias.com/daily-prelims-notes-29-may-2021/

Q75.

Answer: C

Comment: Very easy

TEST 1047 FLT 6

Q76.

 

Answer: A

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: DPN

https://optimizeias.com/daily-prelims-notes-29-may-2021/

Q77.

 

Answer: A

Comment: Medium

Q78.

Answer: D

Comment: Tough

Q79.

Answer: D

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: Directly from DPN

https://optimizeias.com/indias-darjeeling-tea/

Q80.

 

Answer: A

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: DPN

https://optimizeias.com/daily-prelims-notes-3-january-2022/

Q81.

Answer: D

Comment: Tough

Q82.

Answer: C

Comment: Tough

Q83.

Answer: C

Comment: Tough

Q84.

 

Answer: B

Comment: Easy

Our Sources: Indirect Question, June 2021

 

Q85.

Answer: D

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: DPN

https://optimizeias.com/united-nations-convention-on-the-law-of-the-sea-unclos-2/

Q86.

Answer: B

Comment: Very easy

Our Sources: Directly from DPN and PPP

Indirect Question, February 2022

https://optimizeias.com/senkaku-islands/

Q87.

Answer: C

Comment: Tough

Our Sources: Partial Question, December 2021

s

Q88.

Answer: B

Comment: Tough

Our Sources: Partial Question, February 2022

https://optimizeias.com/isis/

Q89.

Answer: A

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: TEST NO 1024 ENVIRONMENT ADVANCED PART II

Q90.

Answer: A

Comment: Tough

Q91.

 

Answer: B

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: Partially DPN

https://optimizeias.com/daily-prelims-notes-13-january-2022/

Q92.

Answer: B

Comment: Tough

Q93.

 

Answer: B

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: Indirect

https://optimizeias.com/silambam-martial-art/

PPP

https://optimizeias.com/silambam-martial-art/

TEST1004 : NCERT HISTORY

Q94.

Answer: A

Comment: Tough

Q95.

Answer:  A

Comment: Very easy

Our Sources: covered widely in OPTIMA CARDS DPN, PPP and notes

https://optimizeias.com/daily-prelims-notes-24-january-2022/

Indirect Question, February 2022

https://optimizeias.com/prelims-power-play-3-february-2022/

Q96.

Answer: A

Comment: Medium

Our Sources: DPN 21 AUG,2021

https://optimizeias.com/somnath-temple-2/

Q97.

Answer: D

Comment: Very easy

Our Sources: DPN and Tests at least 20 times.

https://optimizeias.com/t-cell-immune-responses-seen-a-year-after-infection/

https://optimizeias.com/prelims-power-play-27-march-2022/

Indirect Question, March 2022

TEST 1036

Q98.

 

Answer: D

Comment: Very easy

Our Sources: 1028 Science and Technology Advance

 

Q99.

Answer: D

Comment: Very easy

Q100.

Answer: B

Comment: Very easy

Our Sources: Test 1010 NCERT ENVIRONMENT

Test 1023 Environment Advance Part 1

Daily Prelims Notes:

https://optimizeias.com/burning-vessels-may-lead-to-acid-rain/